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1. Under the shared responsibility model, which of the following is the customer responsible for?
A. Ensuring that disk drives are wiped after use. B. Ensuring that firmware is updated on hardware devices. C. Ensuring that data is encrypted at rest. D. Ensuring that network cables are category six or higher.
2. Which services are parts of the AWS serverless platform?
A. Amazon EC2, Amazon S3, Amazon Athena B. Amazon Kinesis, Amazon SQS, Amazon EMR C. AWS Step Functions, Amazon DynamoDB, Amazon SNS D. Amazon Athena, Amazon Cognito, Amazon EC2
3. Which of the following services is in the category of AWS serverless platform?
A. Amazon EMR B. Elastic Load Balancing C. AWS Lambda D. AWS Mobile Hub
4. An administrator needs to rapidly deploy a popular IT solution and start using it immediately. Where can the administrator find assistance?
A. AWS Well-Architected Framework documentation B. Amazon CloudFront C. AWS CodeCommit D. AWS Quick Start reference deployments
5. One benefit of On-Demand Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) pricing is:
A. the ability to bid for a lower hourly cost. B. paying a daily rate regardless of time used. C. paying only for time used. D. pre-paying for instances and paying a lower hourly rate.
6. Which of the following tasks is the responsibility of AWS?
A. Encrypting client-side data B. Configuring AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) roles C. Securing the Amazon EC2 hypervisor D. Setting user password policies
7. Which is the MINIMUM AWS Support plan that provides technical support through phone calls?
A. Enterprise B. Business C. Developer D. Basic
8. How should a customer forecast the future costs for running a new web application?
A. Amazon Aurora Backtrack B. Amazon CloudWatch Billing Alarms C. AWS Simple Monthly Calculator D. AWS Cost and Usage report
9. A company will be moving from an on-premises data center to the AWS Cloud. What would be one financial difference after the move?
A. Moving from variable operational expense (opex) to upfront capital expense (capex). B. Moving from upfront capital expense (capex) to variable capital expense (capex). C. Moving from upfront capital expense (capex) to variable operational expense (opex). D. Elimination of upfront capital expense (capex) and elimination of variable operational expense(opex).
10. A solution that is able to support growth in users, traffic, or data size with no drop in performance aligns with which cloud architecture principle?
A. Think parallel B. Implement elasticity C. Decouple your components D. Design for failure
11. Which of the following can limit Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) bucket access to specific users?
A. A public and private key-pair B. Amazon Inspector C. AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies D. Security Groups
12. What can AWS edge locations be used for? (Choose two.)
A. Hosting applications B. Delivering content closer to users C. Running NoSQL database caching services D. Reducing traffic on the server by caching responses E. Sending notification messages to end users
13. How does AWS shorten the time to provision IT resources?
A. It supplies an online IT ticketing platform for resource requests. B. It supports automatic code validation services. C. It provides the ability to programmatically provision existing resources. D. It automates the resource request process from a company’s IT vendor list.
14. Which AWS service can serve a static website?
A. Amazon S3 B. Amazon Route 53 C. Amazon QuickSight D. AWS X-Ray
15. Which is the minimum AWS Support plan that includes Infrastructure Event Management without additional costs?
A. Enterprise B. Business C. Developer D. Basic
16. Which AWS feature should a customer leverage to achieve high availability of an application?
A. AWS Direct Connect B. Availability Zones C. Data centers D. Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC)
17. In which scenario should Amazon EC2 Spot Instances be used?
A. A company wants to move its main website to AWS from an on-premises web server. B. A company has a number of application services whose Service Level Agreement (SLA) requires 99.999% uptime. C. A company’s heavily used legacy database is currently running on-premises. D. A company has a number of infrequent, interruptible jobs that are currently using On-Demand Instances
18. Which of the following common IT tasks can AWS cover to free up company IT resources? (Choose two.)
A. Patching databases software B. Testing application releases C. Backing up databases D. Creating database schema E. Running penetration tests
19. Which AWS services can be used to gather information about AWS account activity? (Choose two.)
A. Amazon CloudFront B. AWS Cloud9 C. AWS CloudTrail D. AWS CloudHSM E. Amazon CloudWatch
20. How do customers benefit from Amazon’s massive economies of scale?
A. Periodic price reductions as the result of Amazon’s operational efficiencies B. New Amazon EC2 instance types providing the latest hardware C. The ability to scale up and down when needed D. Increased reliability in the underlying hardware of Amazon EC2 instances
21. If each department within a company has its own AWS account, what is one way to enable consolidated billing?
A. Use AWS Budgets on each account to pay only to budget. B. Contact AWS Support for a monthly bill. C. Create an AWS Organization from the payer account and invite the other accounts to join. D. Put all invoices into one Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) bucket, load data into Amazon Redshift, and then run a billing report.
22. Which of the following features can be configured through the Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC) Dashboard? (Choose two.)
A. Amazon CloudFront distributions B. Amazon Route 53 C. Security Groups D. Subnets E. Elastic Load Balancing
23. Which options does AWS make available for customers who want to learn about security in the cloud in an instructor-led setting? (Choose two.)
A. AWS Trusted Advisor B. AWS Online Tech Talks C. AWS Blog D. AWS Forums E. AWS Classroom Training
24. Which of the following is a component of the shared responsibility model managed entirely by AWS?
A. Patching operating system software B. Encrypting data C. Enforcing multi-factor authentication D. Auditing physical data center assets
25. Which service is best for storing common database query results, which helps to alleviate database access load?
A. Amazon Machine Learning B. Amazon SQS C. Amazon ElastiCache D. Amazon EC2 Instance Store
26. Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) offers which of the following benefits over traditional database management?
A. AWS manages the data stored in Amazon RDS tables. B. AWS manages the maintenance of the operating system. C. AWS automatically scales up instance types on demand. D. AWS manages the database type.
27. Which AWS support plan includes a dedicated Technical Account Manager?
A. Developer B. Enterprise C. Business D. Basic
28. Which of the following is an important architectural design principle when designing cloud applications?
A. Use multiple Availability Zones. B. Use tightly coupled components. C. Use open source software. D. Provision extra capacity
29. Which of the following services falls under the responsibility of the customer to maintain operating system configuration, security patching, and networking?
A. Amazon RDS B. Amazon EC2 C. Amazon ElastiCache D. AWS Fargate
30. Which service provides a hybrid storage service that enables on-premises applications to seamlessly use cloud storage?
A. Amazon Glacier B. AWS Snowball C. AWS Storage Gateway D. Amazon Elastic Block Storage (Amazon EBS)
31. Which of the following security measures protect access to an AWS account? (Choose two.)
A. Enable AWS CloudTrail. B. Grant least privilege access to IAM users. C. Create one IAM user and share with many developers and users. D. Enable Amazon CloudFront. E. Activate multi-factor authentication (MFA) for privileged users.
32. Which of the following is an AWS Cloud architecture design principle?
A. Implement single points of failure. B. Implement loose coupling. C. Implement monolithic design. D. Implement vertical scaling
33. Which of the following can an AWS customer use to launch a new Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) cluster? (Choose two.)
A. AWS Concierge B. AWS CloudFormation C. Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) D. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling E. AWS Management Console
34. Which AWS Cost Management tool allows you to view the most granular data about your AWS bill?
A. AWS Cost Explorer B. AWS Budgets C. AWS Cost and Usage report D. AWS Billing dashboard
35. The financial benefits of using AWS are: (Choose two.)
A. reduced Total Cost of Ownership (TCO). B. increased capital expenditure (capex). C. reduced operational expenditure (opex). D. deferred payment plans for startups. E. business credit lines for stratups
36. A company is migrating an application that is running non-interruptible workloads for a three-year time frame. Which pricing construct would provide the MOST cost-effective solution?
A. Amazon EC2 Spot Instances B. Amazon EC2 Dedicated Instances C. Amazon EC2 On-Demand Instances D. Amazon EC2 Reserved Instances
37. Which AWS service can be used to manually launch instances based on resource requirements?
A. Amazon EBS B. Amazon S3 C. Amazon EC2 D. Amazon ECS
38. Under the shared responsibility model, which of the following tasks are the responsibility of the AWS customer? (Choose two.)
A. Ensuring that application data is encrypted at rest B. Ensuring that AWS NTP servers are set to the correct time C. Ensuring that users have received security training in the use of AWS services D. Ensuring that access to data centers is restricted E. Ensuring that hardware is disposed of properly
39. Which AWS service would you use to obtain compliance reports and certificates?
A. AWS Artifact B. AWS Lambda C. Amazon Inspector D. AWS Certificate Manager
40. Which AWS services are defined as global instead of regional? (Choose two.)
A. Amazon Route 53 B. Amazon EC2 C. Amazon S3 D. Amazon CloudFront E. Amazon DynamoDB
41. What technology enables compute capacity to adjust as loads change?
A. Load balancing B. Automatic failover C. Round robin D. Auto Scaling
42. How would an AWS customer easily apply common access controls to a large set of users?
A. Apply an IAM policy to an IAM group. B. Apply an IAM policy to an IAM role. C. Apply the same IAM policy to all IAM users with access to the same workload. D. Apply an IAM policy to an Amazon Cognito user pool.
43. Which of the following AWS features enables a user to launch a pre-configured Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instance?
A. Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) B. Amazon Machine Image C. Amazon EC2 Systems Manager D. Amazon AppStream 2.0
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44. Which of the following steps should be taken by a customer when conducting penetration testing on AWS?
A. Conduct penetration testing using Amazon Inspector, and then notify AWS support. B. Request and wait for approval from the customer’s internal security team, and then conduct testing. C. Notify AWS support, and then conduct testing immediately. D. Request and wait for approval from AWS support, and then conduct testing.
45. Which of the following is an advantage of consolidated billing on AWS?
A. Volume pricing qualification B. Shared access permissions C. Multiple bills per account D. Eliminates the need for tagging
46. Which AWS service provides a customized view of the health of specific AWS services that power a customer’s workloads running on AWS?
A. AWS Service Health Dashboard B. AWS X-Ray C. AWS Personal Health Dashboard D. Amazon CloudWatch
47. Where can AWS compliance and certification reports be downloaded?
A. AWS Artifact B. AWS Concierge C. AWS Certificate Manager D. AWS Trusted Advisor
48. Which is the MINIMUM AWS Support plan that allows for one-hour target response time for support cases?
A. Enterprise B. Business C. Developer D. Basic
49. Which design principles for cloud architecture are recommended when re-architecting a large monolithic application? (Choose two.)
A. Use manual monitoring. B. Use fixed servers. C. Implement loose coupling. D. Rely on individual components. E. Design for scalability.
50. Which Amazon EC2 pricing model adjusts based on supply and demand of EC2 instances?
A. On-Demand Instances B. Reserved Instances C. Spot Instances D. Convertible Reserved Instances
51. Which of the following services could be used to deploy an application to servers running onpremises? (Choose two.)
A. AWS Elastic Beanstalk B. AWS OpsWorks C. AWS CodeDeploy D. AWS Batch E. AWS X-Ray
52. Which service allows a company with multiple AWS accounts to combine its usage to obtain volume discounts?
A. AWS Server Migration Service B. AWS Organizations C. AWS Budgets D. AWS Trusted Advisor
53. What is Amazon CloudWatch?
A. A code repository with customizable build and team commit features. B. A metrics repository with customizable notification thresholds and channels. C. A security configuration repository with threat analytics. D. A rule repository of a web application firewall with automated vulnerability prevention features.
54. If a customer needs to audit the change management of AWS resources, which of the following AWS services should the customer use?
A. AWS Config B. AWS Trusted Advisor C. Amazon CloudWatch D. Amazon Inspector
55. Which AWS service provides the ability to manage infrastructure as code?
A. AWS CodePipeline B. AWS CodeDeploy C. AWS Direct Connect D. AWS CloudFormation
56. When performing a cost analysis that supports physical isolation of a customer workload, which compute hosting model should be accounted for in the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)?
A. Dedicated Hosts B. Reserved Instances C. On-Demand Instances D. No Upfront Reserved Instances
57. Which of the following is a benefit of using the AWS Cloud?
A. Permissive security removes the administrative burden. B. Ability to focus on revenue-generating activities. C. Control over cloud network hardware. D. Choice of specific cloud hardware vendors.
58. Where should a company go to search software listings from independent software vendors to find, test, buy and deploy software that runs on AWS?
A. AWS Marketplace B. Amazon Lumberyard C. AWS Artifact D. Amazon CloudSearch
59. Which task is AWS responsible for in the shared responsibility model for security and compliance?
A. Granting access to individuals and services B. Encrypting data in transit C. Updating Amazon EC2 host firmware D. Updating operating systems
60. Which of the following are categories of AWS Trusted Advisor? (Choose two.)
A. Fault Tolerance B. Instance Usage C. Infrastructure D. Performance E. Storage Capacity
61. Which AWS service provides alerts when an AWS event may impact a company’s AWS resources?
A. AWS Personal Health Dashboard B. AWS Service Health Dashboard C. AWS Trusted Advisor D. AWS Infrastructure Event Management
62. A company wants to reduce the physical compute footprint that developers use to run code. Which service would meet that need by enabling serverless architectures?
A. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) B. AWS Lambda C. Amazon DynamoDB D. AWS CodeCommit
63. Which AWS service allows companies to connect an Amazon VPC to an on-premises data center?
A. AWS VPN B. Amazon Redshift C. API Gateway D. Amazon Direct Connect
64. Under the shared responsibility model, which of the following is a shared control between a customer and AWS?
A. Physical controls B. Patch management C. Zone security D. Data center auditing
65. Which AWS service should be used for long-term, low-cost storage of data backups?
A. Amazon RDS B. Amazon Glacier C. AWS Snowball D. AWS EBS
66. When architecting cloud applications, which of the following are a key design principle?
A. Use the largest instance possible B. Provision capacity for peak load C. Use the Scrum development process D. Implement elasticity
67. Which AWS service provides a simple and scalable shared file storage solution for use with Linuxbased AWS and on-premises servers?
A. Amazon S3 B. Amazon Glacier C. Amazon EBS D. Amazon EFS
68. Which AWS managed service is used to host databases?
A. AWS Batch B. AWS Artifact C. AWS Data Pipeline D. Amazon RDS
69. Which of the following security-related services does AWS offer? (Choose two.)
A. Multi-factor authentication physical tokens B. AWS Trusted Advisor security checks C. Data encryption D. Automated penetration testing E. Amazon S3 copyrighted content detection
70. Which of the following Identity and Access Management (IAM) entities is associated with an access key ID and secret access key when using AWS Command Line Interface (AWS CLI)?
A. IAM group B. IAM user C. IAM role D. IAM policy
71. Which service provides a virtually unlimited amount of online highly durable object storage?
A. Amazon Redshift B. Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) C. Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) D. Amazon S3
72. What is the benefit of using AWS managed services, such as Amazon ElastiCache and Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS)?
A. They require the customer to monitor and replace failing instances. B. They have better performance than customer-managed services. C. They simplify patching and updating underlying OSs. D. They do not require the customer to optimize instance type or size selections.
73. Web servers running on Amazon EC2 access a legacy application running in a corporate data center. What term would describe this model?
A. Cloud-native B. Partner network C. Hybrid architecture D. Infrastructure as a service
74. Which of the following AWS services can be used to serve large amounts of online video content with the lowest possible latency? (Choose two.)
A. AWS Storage Gateway B. Amazon S3 C. Amazon Elastic File System (EFS) D. Amazon Glacier E. Amazon CloudFront
75. The AWS Cloud’s multiple Regions are an example of
A. agility. B. global infrastructure. C. elasticity. D. pay-as-you-go pricing.
76. Which of the following are valid ways for a customer to interact with AWS services? (Choose two.)
A. Command line interface B. On-premises C. Software Development Kits D. Software-as-a-service E. Hybrid
77. Which statement best describes Elastic Load Balancing?
A. It translates a domain name into an IP address using DNS. B. It distributes incoming application traffic across one or more Amazon EC2 instances. C. It collects metrics on connected Amazon EC2 instances. D. It automatically adjusts the number of Amazon EC2 instances to support incoming traffic.
78. A company is looking for a scalable data warehouse solution. Which of the following AWS solutions would meet the company’s needs?
A. Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) B. Amazon DynamoDB C. Amazon Kinesis D. Amazon Redshift
79. Which of the following AWS Cloud services can be used to run a customer-managed relational database?
A. Amazon EC2 B. Amazon Route 53 C. Amazon ElastiCache D. Amazon DynamoDB
80. What is the AWS customer responsible for according to the AWS shared responsibility model?
A. Physical access controls B. Data encryption C. Secure disposal of storage devices D. Environmental risk management
81. Which Amazon EC2 instance pricing model can provide discounts of up to 90%?
A. Reserved Instances B. On-Demand C. Dedicated Hosts D. Spot Instances
82. Which storage service can be used as a low-cost option for hosting static websites?
A. Amazon Glacier B. Amazon DynamoDB C. Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) D. Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)
83. A customer is deploying a new application and needs to choose an AWS Region. Which of the following factors could influence the customer’s decision? (Choose two.)
A. Reduced latency to users B. The application’s presentation in the local language C. Data sovereignty compliance D. Cooling costs in hotter climates E. Proximity to the customer’s office for on-site visits
84. Which of the following is an AWS managed Domain Name System (DNS) web service?
A. Amazon Route 53 B. Amazon Neptune C. Amazon SageMaker D. Amazon Lightsail
85. Which of the following are features of Amazon CloudWatch Logs? (Choose two.)
A. Summaries by Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) B. Free Amazon Elasticsearch Service analytics C. Provided at no charge D. Real-time monitoring E. Adjustable retention
86. A customer is using multiple AWS accounts with separate billing. How can the customer take advantage of volume discounts with minimal impact to the AWS resources?
A. Create one global AWS account and move all AWS resources to the account. B. Sign up for three years of Reserved Instance pricing up front. C. Use the consolidated billing feature from AWS Organizations. D. Sign up for the AWS Enterprise support plan to get volume discounts.
87. Which of the following is the customer’s responsibility under the AWS shared responsibility model?
A. Patching underlying infrastructure B. Physical security C. Patching Amazon EC2 instances D. Patching network infrastructure
88. Which feature of the AWS Cloud will support an international company’s requirement for low latency to all of its customers?
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A. Fault tolerance B. Global reach C. Pay-as-you-go pricing D. High availability
89. For which auditing process does AWS have sole responsibility?
A. AWS IAM policies B. Physical security C. Amazon S3 bucket policies D. AWS CloudTrail Logs
90. What approach to transcoding a large number of individual video files adheres to AWS architecture principles?
A.Using many instances in parallel B.Using a single large instance during off-peak hours C.Using dedicated hardware D.Using a large GPU instance type
91. Which service should a customer use to consolidate and centrally manage multiple AWS accounts?
A. AWS IAM B. AWS Organizations C. AWS Schema Conversion Tool D. AWS Config
92. What is an example of agility in the AWS Cloud?
A. Access to multiple instance types B. Access to managed services C. Using Consolidated Billing to produce one bill D. Decreased acquisition time for new compute resources
93. Which of the following is a fast and reliable NoSQL database service?
A. Amazon Redshift B. Amazon RDS C. Amazon DynamoDB D. Amazon S3
94. Which AWS IAM feature allows developers to access AWS services through the AWS CLI?
A. API keys B. Access keys C. User names/Passwords D. SSH keys
95. What is the lowest-cost, durable storage option for retaining database backups for immediate retrieval?
A. Amazon S3 B. Amazon Glacier C. Amazon EBS D. Amazon EC2 Instance Store
96. One of the advantages to moving infrastructure from an on-premises data center to the AWS Cloud is:
A. it allows the business to eliminate IT bills. B. it allows the business to put a server in each customer’s data center. C. it allows the business to focus on business activities. D. it allows the business to leave servers unpatched.
97. How many Availability Zones should compute resources be provisioned across to achieve high availability?
A. A minimum of one B. A minimum of two C. A minimum of three D. A minimum of four or more
98. Which of the following is a shared control between the customer and AWS?
A. Providing a key for Amazon S3 client-side encryption B. Configuration of an Amazon EC2 instance C. Environmental controls of physical AWS data centers D. Awareness and training
99. Which of the following components of the AWS Global Infrastructure consists of one or more discrete data centers interconnected through low latency links?
A. Availability Zone B. Edge location C. Region D. Private networking
100. A customer needs to run a MySQL database that easily scales. Which AWS service should they use?
A. Amazon Aurora B. Amazon Redshift C. Amazon DynamoDB D. Amazon ElastiCache
101. What is one of the advantages of the Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS)?
A. It simplifies relational database administration tasks. B. It provides 99.99999999999% reliability and durability. C. It automatically scales databases for loads. D. It enabled users to dynamically adjust CPU and RAM resources.
102. Which AWS services should be used for read/write of constantly changing data? (Choose two.)
A. Amazon Glacier B. Amazon RDS C. AWS Snowball D. Amazon Redshift E. Amazon EFS
103. AWS supports which of the following methods to add security to Identity and Access Management (IAM) users? (Choose two.)
A. Implementing Amazon Rekognition B. Using AWS Shield-protected resources C. Blocking access with Security Groups D. Using Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) E. Enforcing password strength and expiration
104. According to best practices, how should an application be designed to run in the AWS Cloud?
A. Use tighly coupled components. B. Use loosely coupled components. C. Use infrequently coupled components. D. Use frequently coupled components.
105. Which is a recommended pattern for designing a highly available architecture on AWS?
A. Ensure that components have low-latency network connectivity. B. Run enough Amazon EC2 instances to operate at peak load. C. Ensure that the application is designed to accommodate failure of any single component. D. Use a monolithic application that handles all operations.
106. Under the AWS shared responsibility model, which of the following activities are the customer’s responsibility? (Choose two.)
A. Patching operating system components for Amazon Relational Database Server (Amazon RDS) B. Encrypting data on the client-side C. Training the data center staff D. Configuring Network Access Control Lists (ACL) E. Maintaining environmental controls within a data center
107. Where are AWS compliance documents, such as an SOC 1 report, located?
A. Amazon Inspector B. AWS CloudTrail C. AWS Artifact D. AWS Certificate Manager
108. Which of the following services will automatically scale with an expected increase in web traffic?
A. AWS CodePipeline B. Elastic Load Balancing C. Amazon EBS D. AWS Direct Connect
109. Which AWS feature will reduce the customer’s total cost of ownership (TCO)?
A. Shared responsibility security model B. Single tenancy C. Elastic computing D. Encryption
110. Which of the Reserved Instance (RI) pricing models can change the attributes of the RI as long as the exchange results in the creation of RIs of equal or greater value?
A. Dedicated RIs B. Scheduled RIs C. Convertible RIs D. Standard RIs
111. Which of the following security-related actions are available at no cost?
A. Calling AWS Support B. Contacting AWS Professional Services to request a workshop C. Accessing forums, blogs, and whitepapers D. Attending AWS classes at a local university
112. Which of the following can limit Amazon Storage Service (Amazon S3) bucket access to specific users?
A. A public and private key-pair B. Amazon Inspector C. AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies D. Security Groups
113. A characteristic of edge locations is that they:
A. host Amazon EC2 instances closer to users. B. help lower latency and improve performance for users. C. cache frequently changing data without reaching the origin server. D. refresh data changes daily
114. Compared with costs in traditional and virtualized data centers, AWS has:
A. greater variable costs and greater upfront costs. B. fixed usage costs and lower upfront costs. C. lower variable costs and greater upfront costs. D. lower variable costs and lower upfront costs.
115. Which of the following Reserved Instance (RI) pricing models provides the highest average savings compared to On-Demand pricing?
A. One-year, No Upfront, Standard RI pricing B. One-year, All Upfront, Convertible RI pricing C. Three-year, All Upfront, Standard RI pricing D. Three-year, No Upfront, Convertible RI pricing
116. Which of the following are advantages of AWS consolidated billing? (Choose two.)
A. The ability to receive one bill for multiple accounts B. Service limits increasing by default in all accounts C. A fixed discount on the monthly bill D. Potential volume discounts, as usage in all accounts is combined E. The automatic extension of the master account’s AWS support plan to all accounts
117. Which AWS tools assist with estimating costs? (Choose three.)
A. Detailed billing report B. Cost allocation tags C. AWS Simple Monthly Calculator D. AWS Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) Calculator E. Cost Estimator
118. Which of the following is a correct relationship between regions, Availability Zones, and edge locations?
A. Data centers contain regions. B. Regions contain Availability Zones. C. Availability Zones contain edge locations. D. Edge locations contain regions.
119. A company is considering using AWS for a self-hosted database that requires a nightly shutdown for maintenance and cost-saving purposes. Which service should the company use?
A. Amazon Redshift B. Amazon DynamoDB C. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) with Amazon EC2 instance store D. Amazon EC2 with Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)
120. What costs are included when comparing AWS Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) with on-premises TCO?
A. Project management B. Antivirus software licensing C. Data center security D. Software development
121. Which services can be used across hybrid AWS Cloud architectures? (Choose two.)
A. Amazon Route 53 B. Virtual Private Gateway C. Classic Load Balancer D. Auto Scaling E. Amazon CloudWatch default metrics
122. Which of the following are characteristics of Amazon S3? (Choose two.)
A. A global file system B. An object store C. A local file store D. A network file system E. A durable storage system
123. Which service enables risk auditing by continuously monitoring and logging account activity, including user actions in the AWS Management Console and AWS SDKs?
A. Amazon CloudWatch B. AWS CloudTrail C. AWS Config D. AWS Health
124. Which AWS characteristics make AWS cost effective for a workload with dynamic user demand? (Choose two.)
A. High availability B. Shared security model C. Elasticity D. Pay-as-you-go pricing E. Reliability
125. Which of the following Amazon EC2 pricing models allow customers to use existing server-bound software licenses?
A. Spot Instances B. Reserved Instances C. Dedicated Hosts D. On-Demand Instances
126. Which of the following inspects AWS environments to find opportunities that can save money for users and also improve system performance?
A. AWS Cost Explorer B. AWS Trusted Advisor C. Consolidated billing D. Detailed billing
127. Which AWS services can host a Microsoft SQL Server database? (Choose two.)
A. Amazon EC2 B. Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) C. Amazon Aurora D. Amazon Redshift E. Amazon S3
128. Distributing workloads across multiple Availability Zones supports which cloud architecture design principle?
A. Implement automation. B. Design for agility. C. Design for failure. D. Implement elasticity.
129. A customer would like to design and build a new workload on AWS Cloud but does not have the AWS-related software technical expertise in-house. Which of the following AWS programs can a customer take advantage of to archive that outcome?
A. AWS Partner Network Technology Partners B. AWS Marketplace C. AWS Partner Network Consulting Partners D. AWS Service Catalog
130. What AWS team assists customers with accelerating cloud adoption through paid engagements in any of several specialty practice areas?
A. AWS Enterprise Support B. AWS Solutions Architects C. AWS Professional Services D. AWS Account Managers
131. Which service stores objects, provides real-time access to those objects, and offers versioning and lifecycle capabilities?
A. Amazon Glacier B. AWS Storage Gateway C. Amazon S3 D. Amazon EBS
132. The use of what AWS feature or service allows companies to track and categorize spending on a detailed level?
A. Cost allocation tags B. Consolidated billing C. AWS Budgets D. AWS Marketplace
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