1. Which one of the following statements regarding STDs is FALSE?
a) STDs are often silent diseases.
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b) STDs cannot be transmitted unless a person has signs and symptoms of the diseases.
c) STDs are linked to infertility.
d) STDs can cause birth defects.
2. All of the following have no cure EXCEPT
a) genital warts. b) hepatitis. c) syphilis. d) herpes.
3. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
a) is a member of the herpes virus family.
b) disables the immune function of the CD4 T cells.
c) attacks the B-cell lymphocyte.
d) is the cause of an acute illness.
4. Which one of the following statements regarding the global issue of HIV/AIDS is FALSE?
a) Ninety-five percent of infections occur in developing countries where heterosexual contact is the main means of HIV transmission.
b) Women are the fastest growing group of newly infected people.
c) Asia and Africa are on par with each other in terms of the rates of HIV infection.
d) Political, economic, and social barriers contribute to the ongoing spread of HIV infection.
5. The average time span between the initial HIV infection and the onset of disease symptoms is _______________ years.
a) 2 b) 5 c) 11 d) 20
6. Shortly after HIV infection, about 50% of those infected will develop
a) severe night sweats. c) Kaposi’s sarcoma.
b) flulike symptoms. d) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia.
7. HIV can survive
a) on bed linens. b) in food. c) on toilet seats. d) in blood or blood products.
8. Transmission of HIV occurs through
a) using the same toilet as someone with HIV.
b) sharing eating utensils with someone with HIV.
c) hugging someone with HIV.
d) unprotected sexual intercourse with someone with HIV.
9. The main routes of HIV transmission include all of the following EXCEPT
a) certain types of sexual contact. c) HIV-infected woman to fetus.
b) direct exposure to infected blood. d) sharing eating utensils.
10. The riskiest sexual activity for contracting HIV is
a) receiving fellatio
b) being the receptive partner during unprotected vaginal intercourse
c) being the receptive partner during unprotected anal intercourse
d) receiving cunnillingus
11. HIV transmission during sexual contact is LEAST likely to occur with
a) oral sex. c) overuse of spermicides.
b) unwanted intercourse. d) the use of enemas prior to anal sex.
12. The LEAST likely mode of direct bloodborne transmission of HIV is
a) needles used to inject drugs. c) acupuncture.
b) shared razors. d) body piercing.
13. Studies have found that women who used this contraceptive method were at greater risk for HIV transmission.
a) spermicides b) condoms c) cervical caps d) IUD
14. All of the following groups are at high risk for HIV infection EXCEPT
a) drug users. b) drug users’ sex partners. c) drug users’ children. d) lesbians.
15. Which of the following HIV transmission modes is also known as “vertical transmission”?
a) mother-to-child transmission
b) sexual transmission
c) transmission through contaminated needles
d) transmission during medical procedure
16. Newborn babies are infected with HIV through
a) living in the same house as someone with AIDS.
b) contact with the virus in the hospital.
c) transmission from HIV-infected mothers.
d) transmission from HIV-infected fathers.
17. It is believed that HIV cannot be transmitted via tears or saliva because
a) of the low concentration of HIV in these body fluids.
b) it is unlikely that tears or saliva will enter the skin.
c) HIV, even in tears or saliva, dies outside the body.
d) of reasons not understood by scientists.
18. Which one of the following statements about HIV or AIDS is true?
a) AIDS continues to rise in men at a faster rate than in women.
b) About 90% of cases of HIV infection in children are the result of transfusion with contaminated blood.
c) Injecting drug use contributes to almost 50% of HIV infection among minorities.
d) HIV infection has remained stable among gay men in general.
19. Signs and symptoms of HIV infection do NOT include
a) unexplained, persistent swollen glands. c) fever, chills, or night sweats.
b) weight gain. d) immobilizing fatigue.
20. The infection most often seen in HIV patients is
a) Kaposi’s sarcoma. c) tuberculosis.
b) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. d) mycobacterium avium complex.
21. A rare form of cancer that has become common among men with AIDS is
a) Kaposi’s sarcoma. c) cryptosporidiosis.
b) Pneumocystis carinii. d) Burkitt’s lymphoma.
22. The initial screening test for HIV antibodies is a/an
a) ELISA test. c) Western blot.
b) CD4 lymphocyte count. d) HIV-1 antigen test.
23. The test that is used as a confirming test for HIV is the
a) ELISA test. b) CD4 lymphocyte test. c) Western blot. d) HIV-1 antigen test.
24. The severity of HIV infection can be monitored by checking
a) total lymphocyte counts.
b) levels of HIV DNA to determine viral load.
c) for therapeutic drug levels.
d) CD4 T-cell counts.
25. When the body produces antibodies to HIV, it is called
a) active immunity. c) seroconversion.
b) passive immunity. d) antigen receptive.
26. Which of the following has been used to monitor the success of HIV treatments?
a) Western blot test c) HIV-1 antigen test
b) viral load d) CD4 lymphocyte count
27. Anonymous tests for HIV continue to be available because of concerns that people with HIV infection will be
a) stigmatized. c) afraid of being identified.
b) subject to discrimination. d) all of the above
28. In 1999, the CDC recommended that states report
a) HIV infection only.
b) both HIV infection and full-blown AIDS.
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c) full-blown AIDS only.
d) an individual’s first name with the HIV status.
29. The most commonly used drug in the treatment of HIV infection that inhibits reproduction of the virus is
a) Compound Q. b) zidovudine (AZT). c) interleukin-2. d) didanosine (ddI).
30. Protease inhibitors
a) stop the development of a protein coat around new HIV cells.
b) replace HIV DNA with CD4 RNA.
c) stop the production of CCR-5 cells.
d) regulate the production of new CD4 lymphocytes.
31. A major development in HIV treatment is
a) the use of vaccines.
b) genetic engineering.
c) very early use of antiviral drug therapy.
d) using protease inhibitors instead of reverse transcriptase inhibitors.
32. All of the following guidelines are important when considering HIV testing EXCEPT that you should
a) know your testing options. c) be familiar with modes of transmission.
b) understand the possible test results. d) wait for symptoms to appear.
33. The HIV treatment that requires the patient to discontinue drug therapy to help stimulate the patient’s immune response is called
a) protease inhibition. b) HAART. c) AZT. d) structured intermittent therapy.
34. Drugs frequently used to treat Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia are
a) protease inhibitors. b) antiviral agents. c) antibiotics. d) nucleoside analogs.
35. Which of the following statements about pregnancy and HIV is true?
a) More than 50% of infants born to untreated HIV-infected women are infected.
b) HIV is linked to infertility.
c) Infected women should not have cesarean deliveries.
d) Treatment with AZT during pregnancy reduces the risk of transmission.
36. All of the following are risk factors for contracting HIV EXCEPT
a) sex with multiple partners.
b) alcohol and other drug use.
c) using a lambskin condom during vaginal or anal sex.
d) mutual masturbation.
37. Chlamydia is the most common _______________ STD.
a) viral b) bacterial c) fungal d) protozoal
38. Chlamydia is the most common STD among
a) women. b) young adults. c) teenagers. d) infants.
39. Chlamydia infection is the leading cause of _______________ in men.
a) epididymitis b) prostatitis c) urinary tract infection d) testiculitis
40. Which of the following statements about chlamydia infection is FALSE?
a) Its symptoms are painful and long-lasting.
b) It is related to PID.
c) It can cause pneumonia and eye infection in newborns.
d) It can lead to infertility.
41. Infants with chlamydia infection
a) acquire the infection through contact in the birth canal.
b) are born with deformities.
c) acquire the infection transplacentally.
d) are at risk for brain damage.
42. Symptoms of chlamydia do NOT include
a) generalized rash. c) discharge from the penis or vagina.
b) painful urination for males and females. d) lower abdominal pain in females.
43. Which of the following antibiotics is usually NOT used to treat chlamydia?
a) penicillin b) azithromycin c) doxycycline d) erythromycin
44. Infection with gonorrhea does NOT lead to
a) neonatal blindness. b) epididymitis in men. c) arthritis. d) dementia.
45. Gonococcal conjunctivitis is an inflammation of the mucous membrane lining the
a) urinary tract. b) respiratory tract. c) eyelids. d) vagina.
46. Which of the following statements about gonorrhea is FALSE?
a) About 50% of men are asymptomatic.
b) The organism is dependent on moist mucous membranes for survival.
c) Gonorrhea may infect the throat, anus, and rectum.
d) Gonorrhea is easily transmitted in moist environments such as showers and locker rooms.
47. Treatment for gonorrhea includes
a) antiviral agents. b) antifungal agents. c) antibiotics. d) acyclovir.
48. An infection that progresses from the vagina and cervix to infect the pelvic cavity and fallopian tubes is called
a) urinary tract infection. c) endometriosis.
b) ascending pelvic inflammation. d) pelvic inflammatory disease.
49. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a common complication of
a) syphilis and herpes. c) genital warts and chlamydia.
b) herpes and gonorrhea. d) gonorrhea and chlamydia.
50. Which of the following statements about pelvic inflammatory disease is FALSE?
a) It can cause chronic pain.
b) It is the leading cause of female infertility.
c) It always has severe and unmistakeable symptoms.
d) There may be recurrent problems despite treatment.
51. The sexually transmitted virus that produces wartlike growths in the genital area is called
a) HPV. b) HSV. c) HIV. d) HBV.
52. The STD that most college students seek treatment for is
a) herpes. b) HIV. c) human papilloma virus. d) hepatitis B.
53. The family of viruses that causes the development of genital warts is
a) condyloma. c) human papillomavirus.
b) condylomata. d) herpes simplex virus.
54. Studies have linked HPV to an increase in the progression of
a) HIV/AIDS. b) CHD. c) lung cancer. d) emphysema.
55. Symptoms of genital warts in men do NOT include
a) initial painful growths. c) warts on the anus.
b) warts appearing on the penis. d) painful penile discharge.
56. HPV infection in pregnant women can be transmitted to the newborn, occasionally causing warts to form on the infant’s
a) genitals. b) fingers. c) vocal cords. d) toes.
57. Treatments for genital warts include all of the following EXCEPT
a) cryosurgery. b) electrocautery. c) antibiotics. d) podophyllin.
58. Women who are infected with HPV
a) will not infect their sexual partners unless visible growths exist.
b) may have painful urination from growths that develop in the urethra.
c) may have growths inside the uterus.
d) typically have growths on the labia and vulva.
59. The herpes virus responsible for cold sores is
a) HSV-1. b) HSV-2. c) HSV-A. d) HSV-B.
60. Genital herpes is
a) HSV-1. b) HSV-2. c) HSV-A. d) HSV-B.
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61. If a pregnant woman’s herpes infection becomes active at the time of delivery, the proper course of action is
a) normal vaginal delivery.
b) cesarean section delivery.
c) medication to delay delivery until the infection dissipates.
d) medication to cure infection.
62. Which of the following statements regarding herpes and newborns is FALSE?
a) Most babies born to an infected woman will develop herpes.
b) Newborns should be delivered by cesarean section if a mother has an active lesion.
c) Neonatal herpes can cause brain damage and early death.
d) There is no effective treatment for neonatal herpes.
63. Which one of the following is NOT associated with recurrent outbreaks of herpes?
a) sunbathing b) fatigue c) menstruation d) vitamin C deficiency
64. A drug used to treat herpes is
a) podophyllin. b) Flagyl. c) doxycycline. d) acyclovir.
65. Herpes is considered a serious STD for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
a) its high fatality rate. c) its serious impact on newborns.
b) its high incidence rate. d) the lack of a cure for the disease.
66. Inflammation of the liver is known as
a) hepatitis. b) jaundice. c) Treponema pallidum. d) epididymitis.
67. HBV can be transmitted via all of the following EXCEPT
a) toilet seats. b) toothbrushes. c) eating utensils. d) razor blades.
68. Which of the following describes the LEAST severe symptoms you might experience if you contract hepatitis?
a) no symptoms at all b) flulike symptoms c) jaundice d) arthritis
69. Which one of the following statements about hepatitis is FALSE?
a) Hepatitis is diagnosed using blood tests.
b) A vaccine is available for HBV.
c) Hepatitis cannot be transmitted to an unborn child.
d) Immunoglobulin can be used to minimize risk of infection after exposure to HBV.
70. The spiral-shaped organism that causes syphilis is a type of
a) chancre. b) bacterium. c) virus. d) protozoa.
71. The sores produced by syphilis in its earliest stage are described as
a) painful fluid-filled blisters. c) fluid-filled papules.
b) genital warts. d) chancres.
72. Characteristics of primary syphilis include
a) painful lesions.
b) a lesion at the site where the organism entered the body.
c) hair loss.
d) a rash on the palms of the hands.
73. Which of the following statements regarding secondary syphilis is FALSE?
a) Signs and symptoms appear 3-6 weeks after the first lesion appears.
b) It is characterized by a rash typically found on the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet.
c) A person is not contagious, because of the absence of lesions.
d) This stage involves mild flulike symptoms.
74. Symptoms of late syphilis do NOT include
a) heart damage. b) blindness. c) dementia. d) contagious rash.
75. Results of transmission of syphilis from a pregnant woman to the fetus include all of the following EXCEPT
a) no risk of infection if delivery is by cesarean section.
b) premature delivery.
c) stillbirth.
d) birth defects.
76. A common sexually transmitted disease caused by a single-celled organism is
a) Candida albicans. b) pubic lice. c) trichomoniasis. d) scabies.
77. Symptoms of trichomoniasis in women include
a) lesions around the vagina.
b) fever and chills.
c) decreased appetite, nausea, and vomiting.
d) greenish, foul-smelling vaginal discharge.
78. Symptoms of trichomoniasis in men include all of the following EXCEPT
a) itching. b) clear discharge. c) no symptoms. d) fever.
79. The drug of choice in treating trichomoniasis is
a) Flagyl. b) podophyllin. c) tetracycline. d) penicillin.
80. The most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in women of reproductive age is
a) trichomoniasis. b) bacterial vaginosis. c) gonorrhea. d) chlamydia.
81. Signs and symptoms of bacterial vaginosis include
a) painful urination. c) vaginal discharge with a fishlike odor.
b) clear, odorless vaginal discharge. d) vaginal ulcers.
82. The main symptom of chancroid is
a) a painful sore. b) vaginal discharge. c) a painless chancre. d) a rash.
83. Parasites that feed on human blood and are usually found on genital hair are called
a) Candida albicans. b) pubic lice. c) pediculosis. d) condyloma.
84. Treatment for pubic lice does NOT include
a) over-the-counter medication. c) washing clothing and linen.
b) acyclovir. d) fine-combing all body hair.
85. The condition in which a burrowing parasite deposits eggs beneath the skin in the creases of the body is called
a) Candida albicans. b) pubic lice. c) pediculosis. d) scabies.
86. Usual sites of infestation of scabies do NOT include
a) the scalp. c) the penis and scrotum.
b) between the fingers. d) the wrists or armpits.
87. The key to prevention of STDs is
a) diagnosis. b) treatment. c) screening. d) education.
88. Educating the public about the prevention of HIV infection was initially most effective among
a) gay populations. c) sexual partners of injection drug users.
b) injection drug users. d) teenagers.
89. Which of the following strategies has not been used to combat HIV infection?
a) mandatory sexuality education c) dramatic presentations
b) public service announcements d) support from well-known figures
90. A sexually active person has an obligation to
a) be aware of signs and symptoms of STDs.
b) begin treatment immediately if infected.
c) protect one’s partner through communication.
d) all of the above
91. The most effective approach to avoiding STDs is
a) use of condoms. c) penicillin therapy.
b) use of contraceptive foams. d) abstinence.
92. Safe approaches to STD prevention include
a) douching or urinating after intercourse.
b) engaging in oral sex or engaging in genital play without full penetration.
c) using birth control pills.
d) using condoms.
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