Use the questions here to review what you learned in this chapter. The correct answers and solutions are found in the appendix, “Answers to Chapter Review Questions.”
1. Which three statements accurately describe WANs?
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a. The companies in which WANs are implemented usually own the WANs.
b. WANs connect devices that are separated by wide geographic areas.
c. WANs use the services of carriers such as telephone companies, cable companies, satellite systems, and network providers.
d. WANs generally carry limited types of data at high speeds.
e. WANs use serial connections of various types to provide access to bandwidth.
f. WANs connect devices that are in a small geographic area.
2. Which three communications needs do WANs address?
a. Workers in a small business need to be able to communicate and share data with each other.
b. Administrative staff within a school need to share schedule information with the teachers.
c. Organizations often want to share information with other organizations across large distances.
d. A department needs to share large data files quickly.
e. Students need to do research for classes by accessing library indexes and publications located in other parts of their country and in other parts of the world.
f. Workers within a branch of a large company need to share project data with each other.
3. Which two statements accurately describe the difference between LANs and WANs?
a. A WAN transmits data faster than a LAN.
b. A LAN transmits data faster than a WAN.
c. Whereas a LAN connects computers, peripherals, and other devices in a single building or other small geographic area, a WAN transmits data across broad geographic distances.
d. A company or organization usually owns the hardware and software required for WANs.
e. LANs span large geographic areas if a LAN administrator configures them correctly.
4. At which OSI layer do WAN protocols describe how to provide electrical, mechanical, operational, and functional connections to the services of a communications service provider?
a.
Layer 1
b.
Layer 2
c.
Layer 3
d.
Layer 4
5. At which OSI layer do WAN protocols define encapsulation of data for transmission toward a remote location and the mechanisms for transferring the resulting frames?
a.
Layer 1
b.
Layer 2
c.
Layer 3
d.
Layer 4
6. Match each type of WAN device to its function.
_In analog lines, they convert the digital signal of the sending device into analog format for transmission over an analog line and then convert the signal back to digital form so that the receiving device can receive and process the network signal.
___They concentrate dial-in and dial-out user communications.
_They provide internetworking and WAN access interface ports.
WANs use these to provide access.
a. Routers b. Communication servers c. Modems d. Other networking devices
7. Match each type of connection on a router to its function.
_allow the router to connect to the LAN media through Ethernet or some other
LAN technology such as Token Ring or ATM.
_are made through a WAN interface on a router to a service provider to a distant site or to the Internet.
_provide a text-based connection for the configuration and troubleshooting of the router.
a. Management ports b. LAN interfaces c. WAN interfaces
8. Which two statements accurately describe data-link protocols in a WAN?
a. Many data link layer protocols use a framing mechanism similar to HDLC.
b. Data link layer protocols determine the cable type to be used in the WAN.
c. ICMP is an example of a data-link protocol.
d. Data link layer protocols define how data is encapsulated for transmission to remote sites, and also the mechanisms for transferring the resulting frames to establish the connection across the communication line from the sending to the receiving device.
e. RIP is an example of a data-link protocol.
9. Match each type of multiplexing to its function.
_Time-division multiplexing
_Frequency-division multiplexing
_Statistical multiplexing a. Creates and combines multiple channels on a single line. Bandwidth is allocated for information from each data channel based on the signal frequency of the traffic.
b. Information from each data channel is allocated bandwidth based on short, pre-assigned time slots, regardless of whether data is available to transmit.
c. Bandwidth dynamically allocates to any data channel that transmits information.
10. Match each type of communication link to its function in a WAN.
_Dedicated communication links
_Circuit-switched communication links
_Packet-switched communication links a. Transmits data in labeled cells, frames, or packets b. Provides a pre-established WAN communications path from the customer premises through the provider network to a remote destination c. Dynamically establishes a dedicated virtual connection for voice or data between a sender and a receiver
11. Which three statements accurately describe the functions of a packet-switching WAN
communication link?
a. Packet switching is a communication method in which users have a dedicated path between source and destination endpoints.
b. The route that the packets take to reach the destination site varies.
c. Packet-switched networks send data packets over different routes of a shared public network owned by a carrier to reach the same destination.
d. In a packet-switching network, each customer uses the full bandwidth on its virtual circuit.
e. The PSTN uses packet switching.
f. The cost of a packet-switched network to the customer is generally lower than with point-to-point leased lines.
12. Which three statements accurately describe DSL?
a. An ISP is not required to connect enterprise users through DSL.
b. Current DSL technologies use sophisticated coding and modulation techniques to achieve data rates of up to 10 Mbps.
c. A subscriber can connect to a DSL enterprise network directly.
d. DSL technology is a circuit-switched connection technology that uses existing twisted-pair telephone lines to transport high-bandwidth data, such as multimedia and video, to service subscribers.
e. DSL technology allows use of the local-loop line for normal telephone voice connection and an always-on connection for instant network connectivity.
f. DSL technologies place upload (upstream) and download (downstream) data transmissions at frequencies above a 4-kHz window, allowing both voice and data transmissions to occur simultaneously on a DSL service.
13. Which two of the following are types of DSL?
a. ADSL
b. IDSL
c. LDSL
d. D-lite e. GDSL
14. Which three statements are considerations for DSL?
a. DSL is not backward compatible with analog voice connections.
b. DSL service can be incrementally added in any area.
c. Most DSL service offerings currently require the customer to be within 10,000 feet of the CO location of the provider.
d. DSL has distance limitations.
e. Upstream (upload) speed is usually faster than the downstream (download) speed.
f. DSL is not universally available in all geographic locations.
15. Which three statements accurately describe cable connections?
a. Originally, cable was a one-directional medium designed to carry broadcast digital video channels to customers (or subscribers).
b. Some cable service providers promise data speeds of up to 20 times that of T1 leased lines.
c. The original purpose of the Multimedia Cable Network System Partners Ltd. was to define a product and system standard capable of providing data and future services over CATV plants.
d. Cable modems enable two-way, high-speed data transmissions using the same coaxial lines that transmit cable television.
e. Cable modem access provides speeds superior to leased lines, with lower costs and simpler installation.
f. Cable modems use the telephone system infrastructure, so local-loop charges apply.
16. Which three statements accurately describe the history of the Internet?
a. The 1993 release of a graphical, easy-to-use browser called Navigator popularized the web.
b. U.S. Department of Defense researchers devised a way to break messages into parts, sending each part separately to its destination, where reassembly of the message would take place. Today, this method of data transmission is known as a packet system.
c. The University of Southern California installed the first computer on the packet system developed by the Department of Defense.
d. The origin of what has become the Internet began with a need at the Department of Defense for an inventory management network that linked several of their computing facilities around the country.
e. In 1972, ARPANET developers created the first e-mail messaging software to more easily communicate and coordinate projects.
f. In 1984, DNS was introduced and gave the world domain suffixes (such as .edu, .com, .gov, and .org) and a series of country codes.
17. Match each NAT term with its definition.
_Static NAT
_Dynamic NAT
_Inside network
_Outside global IP address a. A set of networks subject to translation using NAT
b. An IP address of an inside host as it appears to the outside network (the translated IP address)
c. A form of NAT that maps an unregistered IP address to a registered IP address on a one-to-one basis d. A form of NAT that maps an unregistered IP address to a registered IP address from a group of registered IP addresses
18. When you are configuring NAT, what determines the number of simultaneous NAT translations that can be active?
a. The size of the NAT memory queue b. The number of addresses in the NAT pool c. The number of unused TCP port numbers d. The ratio between the number of UDP and TCP sessions
19. When configuring NAT, the Internet interface is considered which of the following?
a. NAT local interface b. NAT inside interface c. NAT global interface d. NAT outside interface
20. The output of which command displays the active translations for a NAT translation table?
a. show ip nat statistics b. show ip nat translations c. clear ip nat translation *
d. clear ip nat translation outside
21. You are troubleshooting a NAT connectivity problem on a Cisco router. You determine that the appropriate translation is not installed in the translation table. Which three actions should you take?
a. Determine if you have enough addresses in the NAT pool.
b. Run debug ip nat detailed to determine the source of the problem.
c. Use the show ip route command to verify that the selected route exists.
d. Verify that the router interfaces are appropriately defined as NAT inside or NAT outside.
e. Verify that the ACL referenced by the NAT command is permitting all necessary inside local IP addresses.
22. Which statement most accurately describes static and dynamic routes?
a. Dynamic routes are manually configured by a network administrator, whereas static routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol.
b. Static routes are manually configured by a network administrator, whereas dynamic routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol.
c. Static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, whereas dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected.
d. Dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, whereas static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected.
23. What does the command ip route 186.157.5.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.3 specify?
a. Both 186.157.5.0 and 10.1.1.3 use a mask of 255.255.255.0.
b. The router should use network 186.157.5.0 to get to address 10.1.1.3.
c. You want the router to trace a route to network 186.157.5.0 via 10.1.1.3.
d. The router should use address 10.1.1.3 to get to devices on network 186.157.5.0.
24. Which command displays information about static route configuration on a Cisco router?
a. show route ip b. show ip route c. show ip route static d. show route ip static
25. Which of the following protocols is an example of an exterior gateway protocol?
a. RIP
b. BGP
c. IGRP
d. EIGRP
26. In which situation is an administrative distance required?
a. When static routes are defined b. When dynamic routing is enabled c. When the same route is learned via multiple routing protocols d. When multiple paths are available to the same destination and they are all learned via the same routing protocol
27. When a router receives a packet with a destination address that is in an unknown subnetwork of a directly attached network, what is the default behavior if the ip classless command is not enabled?
a. Drop the packet b. Forward the packet to the default route c. Forward the packet to the next hop for the directly attached network d. Broadcast the packet through all interfaces except the one on which it was received
28. Which three statements accurately describe the characteristics and functions of circuit-
switched networks?
a. With circuit switching, a dedicated physical circuit is established, maintained, and terminated through a carrier network for each communication session.
b. Circuit switching allows multiple sites to connect to the switched network of a carrier and communicate with each other.
c. With circuit switching, communication links can accommodate only two sites on a single connection.
d. ATM is an example of circuit-switching technology.
e. ISDN is an example of a circuit-switched network.
f. Frame Relay is an example of circuit-switching technology.
29. Which three statements describe considerations for PSTN as a communications link?
a. Other than a modem, no additional equipment is required.
b. The transmission rate for large data files is fast.
c. The cost associated with the implementation of a PSTN connection link for a WAN is relatively low.
d. The maintenance of a public telephone network is very high quality with few instances in which lines are not available.
e. The time required to connect through the WAN is fast.
f. No limitations on the signal rate in a PSTN connection exist.
30. Which three statements accurately describe a point-to-point communication link?
a. A point-to-point (or serial) communication link provides a single, pre-established WAN communications path from the customer premises through a carrier network, such as a telephone company, to a remote network.
b. Carriers usually lease point-to-point lines, which is why point-to-point lines are often called leased lines.
c. A point-to-point (or serial) line usually connects two relatively close sites.
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d. For a point-to-point line, the carrier dedicates fixed transport capacity and facility hardware to the line of a customer.
e. The purpose of a DSU/CSU in a point-to-point communication link is to ensure reliable delivery of data packets over the connection.
f. Multiplexing technologies are not used in point-to-point communications.
31. Which three statements accurately describe bandwidth available for WAN
connections?
a. In North America, bandwidth is usually expressed as a “DS” number (DS0, DS1, and so forth) that technically refers to the rate and format of the signal.
b. To get a DS1 line (also called a T1 line), 12 DS0s can be bundled to achieve a total speed of 1.544 Mbps.
c. The bandwidth on a serial connection can be incrementally increased to accommodate the need for faster transmission.
d. The most fundamental line speed is 1.544 Mbps (DS1), which is the bandwidth required for an uncompressed, digitized phone call.
e. Optical networks use a bandwidth hierarchy that differs between North America and Europe. In Europe, the OC defines the bandwidth points, and in North America, the SDH defines the bandwidth points.
f. Bandwidth refers to the rate at which data is transferred over the communication link.
32. Which three statements describe the functions of HDLC?
a. HDLC includes support for both point-to-point and multipoint configurations.
b. HDLC includes a method for authentication.
c. HDLC is compatible between devices from different vendors.
d. HDLC specifies an encapsulation method for data on synchronous serial data links using frame character and checksum.
e. HDLC supports only multipoint configurations.
f. The Cisco implementation of HDLC includes windowing and flow control.
33. Which three statements describe the function of PPP?
a. The authentication phase of a PPP session is required.
b. PPP provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections only over asynchronous circuits.
c. PPP originally emerged as an encapsulation protocol for transporting IP traffic over point-to-point links.
d. PPP established a standard for the management of TCP sessions.
e. PPP provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections over synchronous and asynchronous circuits.
f. The LCP in PPP is used for establishment, configuration, and testing the data-link connection.
34. Which three statements describe considerations for point-to-point communication links?
a. Point-to-point communication links require minimal expertise to install and maintain.
b. Point-to-point communication links usually offer a high quality of service.
c. Point-to-point communication links provide permanent, dedicated capacity that is always available.
d. With leased lines, the bandwidth of the line is usually what is needed for communication.
e. Point-to-point communication links are available on a shared basis.
f. In point-to-point communication links, endpoints share the interfaces on the router, which decreases equipment costs.
35. Which command enables HDLC?
a. Router (config)# hdlc encapsulation b. Router (config)# encapsulation hdlc c. Router (config-if)# hdlc encapsulation d. Router (config-if)# encapsulation hdlc
36. How does the Cisco-proprietary HDLC make it possible for multiple network layer protocols to share the same serial link?
a. It adds a new type field.
b. It subdivides the control field.
c. It provides for additional values in the FCS field.
d. It includes protocol information with the data field.
37. In which Cisco command-line interface (CLI) mode do you enter the command to specify PPP authentication?
a. User mode b. ROM monitor mode c. Global configuration mode d. Interface configuration mode
38. Which output from the show interface command indicates that PPP is configured properly?
a. Encaps = PPP
b. PPP encapsulation c. Encapsulation PPP
d. Encapsulation HDLC using PPP
39. Which three statements properly describe Frame Relay?
a. Frame Relay works at the application layer.
b. The connection to the network edge is often a leased line, but dialup connections are available from some providers using ISDN or xDSL lines.
c. Frame Relay implements no error or flow control.
d. Available data rates for Frame Relay are commonly up to 10 Mbps.
e. Most Frame Relay connections are SVCs rather than PVCs.
f. Frame Relay provides both PVC and SVC service using shared medium-bandwidth connectivity that carries both voice and data traffic.
40. Which three statements accurately describe ATM?
a. ATM is implemented by using virtual circuits.
b. An ATM network comprises ATM routers, which are responsible for forwarding cells and packets.
c. Virtual circuits provide a bidirectional communications path from one ATM endpoint to another.
d. An ATM virtual circuit is a physical circuit-switched connection created between two computer endpoints across an ATM network.
e. ATM can run only over coaxial cable using DS3.
f. ATM is a type of cell-switched connection technology that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data through private and public networks.
41. How does a distance vector router learn about paths for networks that are not directly connected?
a. From the source router b. From neighboring routers c. From the destination router d. A distance vector router learns only about directly connected networks
42. What does a distance vector router send to its neighboring routers as part of a periodic routing table update?
a. The entire routing table b. Information about new routes c. Information about routes that have changed d. Information about routes that no longer exist
43. What is the maximum allowable hop count for RIP?
b. 15
c. 30
d. 60
44. With RIP, load balancing is performed over multiple paths that have which characteristic?
a. Equal cost b. Equal weight c. Equal distance d. Equal bandwidth
45. Which command correctly specifies RIP as the routing protocol?
a. Router(config)#rip b. Router(config)#router rip c. Router(config-router)#rip {AS no.}
d. Router(config-router)#router rip {AS no.}
46. What is the default value of the RIP hold-down timer?
a. 30 seconds b. 60 seconds c. 90 seconds d. 180 seconds
This chapter includes the following sections:
■ Chapter Objectives
■ Discovering Neighbors on the Network
■ Managing Cisco Router Startup and Configuration
■ Managing Cisco Devices
■ Chapter Summary
■ Review Questions
Continue reading here: Managing Cisco Router Startup and Configuration
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